The medical information and doctors I have consulted have brought me to the understanding that the infection is transmitted via fluids... meaning that barring direct ejaculate, the only way for a male to transmit it to a female is via "precum", is this an accurate interpretation or am I way off? I've also been made to understand that there is significantly lower risk of infection during the 'incubation' period than afterward, which also contributes to my (perhaps futile) hope that she may be yet uninfected. Do you have any insight into this? Thank you again.